1. A student claims that for $f(x,y) = x^2 y + y^3$, the value $f_{xy}(1, 2) = f_{yx}(1, 2)$. Which reasoning best supports this claim?
- A.The function is a polynomial, so all partial derivatives exist but Clairaut's theorem does not apply.
- B.The mixed partials of any polynomial are continuous everywhere, so Clairaut's theorem guarantees $f_{xy} = f_{yx}$.
- C.The equality $f_{xy} = f_{yx}$ holds for all functions, regardless of continuity.
- D.One must compute both $f_{xy}$ and $f_{yx}$ explicitly; there is no theorem that guarantees equality.
View Answer
Answer: The mixed partials of any polynomial are continuous everywhere, so Clairaut's theorem guarantees $f_{xy} = f_{yx}$.
Check the hypothesis: Polynomials have continuous partial derivatives of all orders on $\mathbb{R}^2$, so the hypothesis of Clairaut's theorem is satisfied. Apply Clairaut's theorem: Since the mixed partials are continuous, we conclude $f_{xy} = f_{yx}$ everywhere, including at $(1,2)$. Why distractors fail: Option A incorrectly claims Clairaut's theorem does not apply to polynomials. Option C overgeneralizes — the equality can fail for functions with discontinuous mixed partials. Option D ignores the existence of Clairaut's theorem entirely.