1. Let $f(x) = \cos(x)$. Using the linearization at $a = 0$, what is the approximate value of $\cos(0.1)$?
- A.$0.900$
- B.$1.100$
- C.$1.000$
- D.$0.995$
View Answer
Answer: $1.000$
Compute the linearization at a = 0: $f(0) = \cos(0) = 1$ and $f'(x) = -\sin(x)$, so $f'(0) = 0$. Thus $L(x) = 1 + 0 \cdot (x - 0) = 1$. Evaluate the estimate: $L(0.1) = 1$. The linearization at $a = 0$ gives a constant approximation because the slope is zero there. Why distractors fail: Option A ($0.900$) subtracts $0.1$ from $1$, as if the slope were $-1$. Option B ($1.100$) adds $0.1$, as if the slope were $+1$. Option D ($0.995$) is close to the true value $\cos(0.1) \approx 0.99500$ but is not the linear approximation at $a = 0$.